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Hi All,
New to the site but have been reading through the forums for about a week on and off and have found a lot of useful information, however I have one question regarding my situation that I'm not sure if I should be concerned about or not and thought I would ask.
A quick history:
Separated in April 2012.
My 3 year old son has stayed with his mother.
A private contact agreement had been reached in mid June, detailing not only regular periods but also specific holidays such as Christmas and the summer.
Agreement was firmly rejected initially by my ex, and in all honesty was not actually agreed to with any good grace whatsoever, although she did agree and signed a copy of the agreed schedule.
7 weeks later and 2 weeks prior to my holiday with my son, I receive a letter from her, rejecting several major points of the agreement, including a shortening of my summer holiday, and proposing significantly less contact.
On the advice of my solicitor, whose opinion was that the breach in agreement was sufficient justification to apply to the court for a formal contact order, I have indeed applied to the court, but will be representing myself.
My concern is this, whilst I fully agree with the opinion that the agreement has been breached and therefore any mediated agreement is likely to be treated with similar disdain, in reality how will the court react to my stating that I have not even attempted mediation. I'm firmly of the opinion that it would be a complete waste of time and money, and only really achieve a prolonging of the inevitable need to approach the courts, but is the court likely to understand or appreciate that fact?
Any thoughts or opinions would be greatly received, and I'm sure I will be back with further questions as I build my case and get closer to the first hearing date.
Cheers guys.
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