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My and my wife purchased our house back in 2006, to which she paid a deposit of £3000 towards the £98k asking price.
It was verbally stated as that I'd paid for a period of a previous rented accommodation, and related deposits from my own pocket that she paid this £3k as a return favour so to speak for my niceness when her previous relationship failed and she needed somewhere to go.
Now, 7 years on, we're divorcing and she's wanting the £3k back before the equity (what little there is, if any...) is split.
We've got £86k on the mortgage left, and if we sell for £95k, once fees and costs come into it, we'll make probably £7k out of it but if she wants her £3k first, thats £4k each - £2k to me and £2k to her as well.
How do I stand to refute her £3k claim.
Hi
I can see that it would niggle, but it may be a question of whether it's worth it to fight. I'm also making the assumption that there are no children involved.
Strictly speaking, the verbal agreement counts for not a great deal without any proof. However, you are talking about getting £2k if she gets her £3k first, or £3.5k if she doesn't. If it comes down to a dispute, then solicitors could easily become involved (I don't know whether you already have one) in which case you will almost certainly spend more than the £1.5k difference on solicitors fees in arguing, and quite possibly more than the whole of the equity.
It might be worth having a word with the Citizens Advice Bureau.
I agree with what actd has told you, legal fees are about £200 plus per hour...the sum you will get will not be worth losing.
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