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This is a bit of a weird one. We are heading towards separation at the least, probably (eventually) divorce. Co-incidentally (unrelated to any marital issues) we have sold our house subject to contract. Once the mortgage and a small credit card debt is cleared there will be around £150k equity. I have suggested to her on multiple occasions that in terms of finances, we just split that equity 50/50 and go our separate ways. There are no other debts or liabilities on either side, we have one joint bank account and she has no credit cards in her name. On each occasion she's said 'I don't want any money from you', but she's an only child, estranged from her (widowed) mother, and I think she's being a bit silly/ (proud?) about not accepting her share, espeically as she doesn't work apart from casual cash-in-hand equating to less than £2k/year
We've been married for 22 years, have two teenage kids, and I just want to make sure that she is not wilfully making herself destitute. The kids would probably divide their time equally but only if she has somewhere to live: can I (or anyone legal) force her to accept the 50% of what's left? Is this just a too simplistic view of how it works? I have a small private pension (<50k) but am not yet 50 so won't be able to access it for a while.
Any advice welcome, thanks
If you go through the courts, as you will need to for the divorce, then I'd really leave it for the court to make a decision. You can certainly propose giving her the money, but there is no law which compels her to accept it.
Yes, agree with actd. Try to get everything in writing in case it backfires later. The court will want to know what the finance arrangements are in due course.
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